Are you preparing for NEET and aiming to master the chapter Reproductive Health from NCERT Class 12 Biology? Here are 50 high-quality NEET-style MCQs with long options based strictly on the NCERT textbook. These are ideal for practice, revision, and time management training before the actual exam.
✅ Chapter: Reproductive Health (Class 12 Biology)
🔬 Target: NEET | NCERT-Based | Long Option MCQ Practice
🔢 Multiple Choice Questions (1–50):
Q1. Reproductive health refers to:
A. The absence of diseases related to reproductive organs only
B. A complete state of physical and mental well-being of individuals in all aspects
C. A complete state of physical, emotional, behavioral, and social well-being in all matters related to the reproductive system and its functions
D. Prevention of sexually transmitted diseases and reproductive organ disorders only
Q2. One major objective of the Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) program is:
A. Promoting late marriages in rural areas
B. Encouraging abortions to control population
C. Creating awareness about reproduction-related aspects and providing support for building a reproductively healthy society
D. Establishing free coaching centers in schools for biology education
Q3. Increased health facilities and better living conditions in India after independence have resulted in:
A. Stabilization of population growth and birth control
B. A rapid decline in population and enhanced mortality rate
C. Decrease in population growth due to mass migration
D. Explosive population growth due to decreased death rate and increased birth rate
Q4. The ideal contraceptive should be:
A. Easily available, reversible, non-hormonal, and expensive
B. Effective, safe, reversible, inexpensive, and not interfering with sexual drive
C. Permanent, unsafe, and altering hormonal balance
D. Surgical, irreversible, and cause discomfort
Q5. The most common method used worldwide for population control is:
A. Surgical sterilization in men only
B. Natural methods like withdrawal and rhythm method
C. Barrier methods that prevent sperm entry into the female genital tract
D. Chemical methods involving permanent hormonal changes
Q6. Oral contraceptive pills function mainly by:
A. Blocking the implantation of the zygote after fertilization
B. Inducing permanent sterility by destroying ovarian follicles
C. Inhibiting ovulation and altering the quality of cervical mucus to prevent sperm entry
D. Stimulating excessive LH and FSH secretion to suppress fertilization
Q7. The IUDs like Copper-T prevent pregnancy by:
A. Stimulating endometrial growth for better fertilization
B. Suppressing sperm motility and preventing fertilization
C. Enhancing hormonal secretion to promote fertility
D. Facilitating sperm transport in the uterus
Q8. One of the major advantages of using condoms is that:
A. They are inserted surgically and remain permanent
B. They provide hormonal support during intercourse
C. They protect against both unwanted pregnancy and STDs like HIV
D. They enhance fertility in males during intercourse
Q9. Saheli is a contraceptive pill:
A. Developed by Indian scientists, taken once a month, and made of natural herbs
B. Made from plant extracts, enhances ovulation and fertility
C. Taken weekly, non-steroidal, and does not affect the hormonal cycle adversely
D. Used daily, inhibits menstruation, and is injectable
Q10. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe if done:
A. Before 36 weeks of gestation under any circumstances
B. During the first trimester under medical supervision to prevent complications
C. Only after the 20th week of gestation due to proper fetal development
D. Only when the mother is under 18 years of age
Q11. MTP is legally permitted in India under which of the following circumstances?
A. When the child is not desired by the couple
B. To avoid the financial burden of parenting
C. In case of contraceptive failure or if the pregnancy is harmful to the mother or fetus
D. To reduce the overall population rate of the country
Q12. STDs are primarily transmitted through:
A. Sharing clothing and public bathrooms
B. Insect bites and coughing
C. Sexual contact, use of infected needles, and from mother to child during birth
D. Sharing food and drinks among infected individuals
Q13. Which among the following is not a bacterial STD?
A. Syphilis
B. Gonorrhoea
C. Chlamydiasis
D. Genital warts
Q14. Which of the following STDs is caused by a virus?
A. Chlamydia
B. Gonorrhoea
C. Genital herpes
D. Syphilis
Q15. One major symptom of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is:
A. Excessive hair growth and acne
B. Pain in joints and muscles only
C. Discomfort or pain in genital regions, itching, fluid discharge, or swelling
D. Increased appetite and weight gain
Q16. The best preventive measure against STDs is:
A. Frequent change of sexual partners
B. Use of contraceptive injections
C. Avoiding sex with unknown or multiple partners and using condoms regularly
D. Taking antibiotics after every intercourse
Q17. Infertility is defined as:
A. Failure to produce healthy children due to genetic diseases only
B. Inability to conceive or produce children after one year of unprotected coitus
C. Failure to have normal sexual desire or pleasure
D. Inability to maintain pregnancy for full term
Q18. One of the assisted reproductive technologies (ART) used when sperm and ovum are fused outside the body is:
A. ZIFT – Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer
B. AI – Artificial Insemination
C. GIFT – Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer
D. IUI – Intrauterine Insemination
Q19. In the ZIFT procedure:
A. Zygote is formed in the lab and transferred into the uterus after cleavage
B. Zygote is directly transferred into the uterus without cleavage
C. Zygote is transferred into the fallopian tube at the 8-blastomere stage
D. Sperm is directly injected into the egg without fertilization
Q20. In GIFT technique:
A. Only sperm is injected into the uterus
B. Zygote is formed in the lab and injected into the cervix
C. Gametes are collected and transferred into the female’s fallopian tube for in vivo fertilization
D. Only ovum is collected and introduced into the uterus
Q21–50: Continue below
Q21. Artificial insemination involves:
A. Transfer of ovum from mother to surrogate woman
B. Insertion of healthy sperm from donor or husband into the uterus
C. Direct injection of fertilized embryo into ovaries
D. Stimulating natural intercourse using hormonal therapy
Q22. ICSI (Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection) is helpful in cases where:
A. Both male and female are fertile
B. Ovulation fails due to poor nutrition
C. Male partner has very low sperm count or defective sperm
D. Female has multiple ovulation cycles in a month
Q23. Test tube baby refers to:
A. Baby delivered by cesarean section in a lab
B. Fertilization done outside the body and embryo implanted into uterus
C. Use of donor gametes for natural fertilization
D. Transfer of gametes directly into ovaries without fertilization
Q24. The key to attaining reproductive health is:
A. Mass sterilization programs
B. Building awareness, sex education, and availability of contraceptives
C. Use of permanent contraceptive pills from teenage
D. Legalization of all abortion requests
Q25. Which organization promotes family planning and reproductive health globally?
A. UNESCO
B. FAO
C. WHO
D. IMF
Q26. Which statement about lactational amenorrhea is correct?
A. It is a permanent contraceptive method post-delivery
B. Effective only up to 6 months after childbirth when menstruation has not resumed
C. Not suitable for preventing STDs
D. Both B and C are correct
Q27. Which of the following is an example of a natural method of contraception?
A. Condom use
B. Copper-T
C. Periodic abstinence
D. Saheli pills
Q28. Which IUD releases hormones to prevent pregnancy?
A. Lippes loop
B. Multiload-375
C. LNG-20
D. Copper-T
Q29. Which method is most suitable for a couple wanting to delay the first child?
A. Tubectomy
B. Vasectomy
C. Condom
D. ZIFT
Q30. Which of the following STDs is not curable?
A. Genital herpes
B. Gonorrhoea
C. Syphilis
D. Chlamydia
Q31. Which of these is a symptom of syphilis in initial stage?
A. Painful sores or ulcers on genitals
B. Swelling in lymph nodes
C. Continuous cough
D. High fever and vomiting
Q32. In India, family planning program was launched in:
A. 1971
B. 1961
C. 1951
D. 1981
Q33. Which of the following is a surgical contraceptive method?
A. Saheli pill
B. Condom
C. Tubectomy
D. Copper-T
Q34. Vasectomy involves:
A. Cutting and tying of fallopian tubes in females
B. Removal of prostate gland
C. Removal of testis
D. Cutting and tying of vas deferens in males
Q35. Which contraceptive method is most effective in preventing STDs and HIV?
A. IUD
B. Condom
C. Saheli
D. Tubectomy
Q36. The Government of India has taken up which initiative to raise awareness about reproductive health?
A. Operation Reproduce
B. Reproductive and Child Health Care Program (RCH)
C. Family Insemination Drive
D. IVF Subsidy Program
Q37. Barrier methods of contraception act by:
A. Changing hormonal cycles
B. Preventing fertilization by blocking sperm entry into female tract
C. Altering gamete formation in gonads
D. Inducing abortion after implantation
Q38. The hormone-releasing IUD that prevents implantation is:
A. Lippes loop
B. LNG-20
C. Copper-T
D. Loop-T
Q39. Most STDs are curable if:
A. Detected and treated early with proper medication
B. Ignored and left untreated for long
C. Natural immunity is strong
D. They are caused by viruses only
Q40. Assisted Reproductive Technology that uses donor sperm is:
A. ZIFT
B. ICSI
C. AI
D. GIFT
Q41. Fertilization occurs in:
A. Uterus after ovum reaches
B. Cervix after sperm meets ovum
C. Fallopian tube during ART procedures like ZIFT
D. Vagina during copulation
Q42. Tubectomy prevents:
A. Sperm production
B. Fusion of gametes by blocking ovum transport
C. Menstruation
D. Fertilization of sperm in uterus
Q43. Which contraceptive method is non-hormonal and female-based?
A. Copper-T
B. Saheli
C. Condom
D. Oral pills
Q44. In lactational amenorrhea, the hormonal changes prevent:
A. Ovulation
B. Copulation
C. Ejaculation
D. Uterus formation
Q45. Condom is preferred because it:
A. Is reusable and permanent
B. Is costlier than pills
C. Is easily available, disposable, and provides protection from STDs
D. Promotes ovulation
Q46. Reproductive health helps prevent:
A. Genetic diseases only
B. Sexually transmitted infections and unwanted pregnancies
C. Physical disabilities
D. Cardiac disorders
Q47. STDs can be prevented through:
A. Proper diet and exercise
B. Regular vaccinations
C. Responsible sexual behavior and condom use
D. Using birth control pills
Q48. What is the full form of ART in reproductive health context?
A. Artificial Respiratory Therapy
B. Assisted Reproductive Technology
C. Advanced Recovery Techniques
D. Artificial Reproduction Transmission
Q49. Which of these is NOT an objective of reproductive health programs?
A. Prevention of sexually transmitted infections
B. Encouraging population explosion
C. Promoting awareness regarding sex education
D. Providing medical facilities to infertile couples
Q50. Which government scheme targets adolescent reproductive health in India?
A. Kishori Shakti Yojana
B. Mid-Day Meal Scheme
C. Aayushman Bharat
D. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Yojana
📝 Answer Key:
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. C
6. C 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. B
11. C 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. C
16. C 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. C
21. B 22. C 23. B 24. B 25. C
26. D 27. C 28. C 29. C 30. A
31. A 32. C 33. C 34. D 35. B
36. B 37. B 38. B 39. A 40. C
41. C 42. B 43. A 44. A 45. C
46. B 47. C 48. B 49. B 50. A
Reproductive Health Class 12 MCQ, NEET Questions Chapter 4 Biology, NCERT Reproductive Health MCQs, Long Option NEET Practice
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